case: (Default)
Case ([personal profile] case) wrote in [community profile] fandomsecrets2014-11-03 06:42 pm

[ SECRET POST #2862 ]


⌈ Secret Post #2862 ⌋

Warning: Some secrets are NOT worksafe and may contain SPOILERS.

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Notes:

Secrets Left to Post: 02 pages, 042 secrets from Secret Submission Post #409.
Secrets Not Posted: [ 0 - broken links ], [ 0 - not!secrets ], [ 0 - not!fandom ], [ 0 - too big ], [ 0 - repeat ], [ 1 - random textless image ].
Current Secret Submissions Post: here.
Suggestions, comments, and concerns should go here.

(Anonymous) 2014-11-04 05:49 am (UTC)(link)
ayrt

Yeah, I just checked a few posts earlier in the thread and realized that I misinterpreted what was going on. I was under the impression that anon was wondering why a sexual person wouldn't want to have sex with someone that they're sexually attracted to rather than why an asexual person would still feel sexual attraction. My bad, I should have kept better track of the thread

(Anonymous) 2014-11-04 06:09 am (UTC)(link)
anon from upthread

I think my main issue is that the definition of asexuality is kind of all over the place and changes depending on the person (and sometimes someone will contradict their own definition even within the same sentence) so it doesn't really make sense to me.

(Anonymous) 2014-11-04 08:33 am (UTC)(link)
Can you give an example of a contradiction? Not trying to argue, I'm just wondering if it's a wording thing.

(Anonymous) 2014-11-04 10:29 pm (UTC)(link)
Like someone talking about how they're asexual but they do still experience sexual attraction but just don't want to act on it, when the "official" definition is supposed to be that you DON'T experience sexual attraction. Obviously people have different definitions they're using, which just makes it confusing.