case: (Default)
Case ([personal profile] case) wrote in [community profile] fandomsecrets2022-03-28 07:27 pm

[ SECRET POST #5561 ]


⌈ Secret Post #5561 ⌋

Warning: Some secrets are NOT worksafe and may contain SPOILERS.


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Notes:

Secrets Left to Post: 02 pages, 32 secrets from Secret Submission Post #797.
Secrets Not Posted: [ 0 - broken links ], [ 0 - not!secrets ], [ 0 - not!fandom ], [ 0 - too big ], [ 0 - repeat ].
Current Secret Submissions Post: here.
Suggestions, comments, and concerns should go here.

(Anonymous) 2022-03-29 01:45 am (UTC)(link)
If an author wrote a book in 1970 and then died soon after, their children are over 50.

My dad died when I was a kid and I don't get royalties from the people who walk on all the sidewalks he poured.
dantesspirit: (Default)

[personal profile] dantesspirit 2022-03-29 05:30 pm (UTC)(link)
Apples and Oranges. Pretty sure the *city* or *town* or *what have you* would have owned the sidewalks he poured, not him. Also pretty sure he would have been *paid for doing his job of pouring sidewalks.*

(Anonymous) 2022-03-29 06:04 pm (UTC)(link)
This!

(Anonymous) 2022-04-01 01:03 am (UTC)(link)
And the author already got paid for their book -- royalties comes after the advance and initial investment in publishing the work have been made up for. Without royalties, it's not like the author got paid nothing (and of course, many authors never see actual royalties realized from their works).
dantesspirit: (Default)

[personal profile] dantesspirit 2022-04-01 03:42 pm (UTC)(link)
The difference is that *the author still owns the rights to the books*. The guy who poured the sidewalks? Doesn't own them, never owned them, is not entitled to anything in regards to monetary compensation from them, *after he finished the job he was paid to do*.