case: (Default)
Case ([personal profile] case) wrote in [community profile] fandomsecrets2011-10-29 02:12 pm

[ SECRET POST #1761 ]

⌈ Secret Post #1761 ⌋


Warning: Some secrets are NOT worksafe and may contain SPOILERS.


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Notes:


Early because there's a snowstorm here, not sure if power will stay on. Better early than late!


Secrets Left to Post: 12 pages, 300 secrets from Secret Submission Post #252.
Secrets Not Posted: [ 1 - broken links ], [ 0 - not!secrets ], [ 0 - not!fandom ], [ 1 - too big ], [ 1 2 - hit/ship/spiration ], [ 0 - omgiknowthem ], [ 0 - take it to comments ], [ 0 - repeats ]
Current Secret Submissions Post: here.
Suggestions, comments and concerns should go here.

Re: ???....????

[identity profile] kryss-labryn.livejournal.com 2011-11-03 02:37 am (UTC)(link)
Late to the party, I know (sorry), but as I haven't actually watched the show I have a question. From what I can gather, people who are schizophrenic agree to become a Doll in order to be cured. In theory, they have their personalities wiped, receive whatever treatment, and then in five years' time they are cured, and fully-functioning members of society, is that correct?

So please, to clarify: was having sex with the dolls considered part of the treatment? These were doctors doing it, right, under carefully monitored conditions as part of the treatment, and not just some random guys off the street paying to be permitted to have their way with the dolls? Or was that "random guy off the street" (if that was how it happened) being used as part of the cure (somehow), again, under carefully monitored conditions and the supervision of doctors?

The doll in question obviously didn't want sex to occur, as she struggled against it; just as obviously if that was not considered to be unusual behaviour then the other dolls must also struggle against the sex as a matter of course. Just as obviously, their protests are also, as a matter of course, ignored. And when someone in any condition struggles against sex occurring, even if they aren't able to verbally express their lack of consent, I think that legally and morally one can take their withholding of consent to be explicit. And that would make having sex with them rape.

Now, as I understand your argument, the doctors are allowing intercourse to take place as an explicit method of treatment, under the properly supervised etc etc. And if the dolls are harmed by it, it's not because the doctors are immoral people (and horrible excuses for human beings) who are whoring out their helpless patients to make a buck because, hell, it's not like they can object or anything, right? Instead, it's because the doctors are honestly doing their best to cure a difficult condition, and this is one method of doing so, the same as forcing a phobic person to face their fears under controlled conditions in order to help them to overcome them isn't the same as torturing or abusing someone with extreme phobias by deliberately exposing them to their triggers for entertainment or profit. Sure, the actual actions may arguably be more or less the same, but the reason and intention behind exposing them to their fears are diametrically opposed.

But if, in this case, forcing intercourse upon the dolls was a method of treatment and not someone taking advantage of a helpless patient in their care, then why did the doctor order the rapist killed when she found out that the doll in question wasn't actually schizophrenic, but simply involuntarily drugged so she would present similar symptoms? Because that isn't the reaction of a doctor going "OMG we accidentally gave a patient the wrong treatment!" it's the reaction of someone going "OMG That means that this was actually rape!"

So then the question becomes, "If it's rape when she's just drugged, then why isn't it rape UNDER THE EXACT SAME CONDITIONS whith the others?" And the only visible answer seems to be that that one single factor in difference, the doll's medical condition, is what is making the difference.

And that INEXORABLY means that it's somehow ISN'T rape (or doesn't matter) if, and ONLY if, the patient is schizophrenic. Which is pretty goddamned dehumanizing, don't you think?

So this really doesn't seem to be a case of "Well, but we simply didn't know that treating morning sickness with Thalidomide would end up being a really bad idea!" They are obviously well aware that rape is wrong (or the rapist wouldn't have been killed), so you tell me: How does rape figure into the treatment? How does them having mental illnesses make BEING RAPED okay?

Honestly curious about that one.