case: (Default)
Case ([personal profile] case) wrote in [community profile] fandomsecrets2012-11-08 05:48 pm

[ SECRET POST #2137 ]


⌈ Secret Post #2137 ⌋

Warning: Some secrets are NOT worksafe and may contain SPOILERS.


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Notes:

Secrets Left to Post: 01 pages, 015 secrets from Secret Submission Post #305.
Secrets Not Posted: [ 0 - broken links ], [ 0 - not!secrets ], [ 0 - not!fandom ], [ 0 - too big ], [ 1 - repeat ].
Current Secret Submissions Post: here.
Suggestions, comments, and concerns should go here.

(Anonymous) 2012-11-09 04:42 am (UTC)(link)
No, I was responding to the OP's claim that Palestinians can't be Anti-Semitic because " the vast majority of Palestinians are Semitic themselves." It's like saying "I'm not afraid of gays, so I can't be homophobic!"

(Anonymous) 2012-11-09 05:28 am (UTC)(link)
*facepalm* That's not what I'm saying at all. Semitic refers to the Semitic language group, which includes both Hebrew and Arabic. Anti-semitism was coined by people who didn't have to differentiate between Semitic speakers and the Jewish people.

Some Palestinians are anti-Jewish. Calling them anti-Semitic just doesn't make much sense when they are also Semitic.

(Anonymous) 2012-11-09 06:31 am (UTC)(link)
Why don't you look up what anti-semitism means? It's the "hostility toward or discrimination against Jews as a religious, ethnic, or racial group." It only applies to Jews, not other Semitic groups.

(Anonymous) 2012-11-09 07:48 am (UTC)(link)
Because the people who coined it had no reason to differentiate between the various Semitic groups. That doesn't stop the term from making little to no etymological sense in the context of Palestinians and Israelis. The same basic argument is constantly made about the term "American" by people from countries in the Americas that aren't the US: just because a term is commonly accepted in its narrowest definition does not negate its problematic nature nor strip it of its broader meaning.

(Anonymous) 2012-11-09 12:50 pm (UTC)(link)
Do you also have a problem with the term homophobia, since most people who are homophobic don't literally have a phobia of gays?

(Anonymous) 2012-11-09 05:33 pm (UTC)(link)
Actually they do, because the word homophobia has nothing to do with the "fear" definition of -phobia; it comes from the "averse to" definition of -phobia. As in a hydrophobic substance being a substance that repels water, for example.

(Anonymous) 2012-11-10 02:02 am (UTC)(link)
That's nice. Doesn't change the fact you're trying to redefine the term for bigotry against Jewish people so you don't have to call the Palestinians anti-semitic when they hate Jews.

(Anonymous) 2012-11-09 07:28 pm (UTC)(link)
Nayrt

Doesn't that strike you as appropriating? I mean, all these different ethnic groups are semites, but instead of saying "anti-Jew" you get to use a vague term that sounds like it should apply to racism against any of them, and then exclude all but your little group? I know the definition.

(Anonymous) 2012-11-09 09:34 pm (UTC)(link)
No, because that's the way the word's used.