case: (Default)
Case ([personal profile] case) wrote in [community profile] fandomsecrets2013-04-16 06:41 pm

[ SECRET POST #2296 ]


⌈ Secret Post #2296 ⌋

Warning: Some secrets are NOT worksafe and may contain SPOILERS.

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Notes:

Secrets Left to Post: 03 pages, 056 secrets from Secret Submission Post #328.
Secrets Not Posted: [ 0 - broken links ], [ 0 - not!secrets ], [ 0 - not!fandom ], [ 0 - too big ], [ 0 - repeat ].
Current Secret Submissions Post: here.
Suggestions, comments, and concerns should go here.
fuchsiascreams: (Default)

[personal profile] fuchsiascreams 2013-04-17 06:47 pm (UTC)(link)
I don't understand all of the conclusions people are drawing up and down this thread. The fact that it happened does not mean that she's making a fucking implication, holy shit. Like the person upthread who said that J. K. Rowling was "implying" that children who come from loveless relationships (Voldemort, who was conceived because his unmarried mother used a Love Potion on his father) turned out badly. What? HER WRITING IT INTO THE BOOKS DOES NOT MEAN THAT SHE IS DRAWING AN IMPLICATION. Correlation =/= causation.

(Anonymous) 2013-04-18 12:07 am (UTC)(link)
Don't fucking throw around science terms incorrectly like that. It's not even remotely relevant to what your saying. Passages in her book either imply certain things or they don't. That's not correlation or causation.

You clearly don't understand what an implication is. Almost everything people say, do or write has implications. The most of the exceptions being when people are being *explicit* instead.

Also, JKR *explicitly* stated in an interview that Voldemort couldn't love because he was conceived while his father was under a love potion. Now, if you're a believe in Death to the Author you can ignore that as "not canon", but that doesn't mean people are wrong to question *why* she decided that and shared it in an interview.