case: (Default)
Case ([personal profile] case) wrote in [community profile] fandomsecrets2013-06-18 06:48 pm

[ SECRET POST #2359 ]


⌈ Secret Post #2359 ⌋

Warning: Some secrets are NOT worksafe and may contain SPOILERS.

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Notes:

Secrets Left to Post: 03 pages, 066 secrets from Secret Submission Post #336.
Secrets Not Posted: [ 0 - broken links ], [ 1 - not!secrets ], [ 1 - not!fandom ], [ 0 - too big ], [ 0 - repeat ].
Current Secret Submissions Post: here.
Suggestions, comments, and concerns should go here.

Re: Question for non-English/ ESL speakers....

(Anonymous) 2013-06-19 03:05 am (UTC)(link)
Why would it not?

This is the thing that I cannot understand. If one country is ruled by another, and the ruling country uses a different language than the subject country, then why would the language of the subject country not be altered to some extent by that of the ruling country?

Also, part of the reason I reacted the way I did is because you specifically said "American" in your initial response. It didn't make sense to me that you would say that when, historically speaking, Britain would have more influence on Indian culture.
ext_442164: Colourful balloons (Default)

Re: Question for non-English/ ESL speakers....

[identity profile] with-rainfall.livejournal.com 2013-06-19 03:18 am (UTC)(link)
Well, my logic was that American films would have a more pervasive influence on Indian film
specifically than British colonisation, and I misread tabaqui's comment and didn't realise that they were talking about a documentary. And yes, the fact that English is used (AFAIK) as a kind of common language/trading & international language these days has probably had some impact too. But, yeah, pretty much, I *also* somehow had this idea in my head that people don't speak as much English in India now as they did then, which, yeah, doesn't make any sense in light of that anon's comment (or yours, if you're the same anon).

So, short answer... I assumed things.