case: (Default)
Case ([personal profile] case) wrote in [community profile] fandomsecrets2015-10-29 07:08 pm

[ SECRET POST #3221 ]


⌈ Secret Post #3221 ⌋

Warning: Some secrets are NOT worksafe and may contain SPOILERS.

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Notes:

Secrets Left to Post: 01 pages, 020 secrets from Secret Submission Post #460.
Secrets Not Posted: [ 0 - broken links ], [ 0 - not!secrets ], [ 0 - not!fandom ], [ 0 - too big ], [ 0 - repeat ].
Current Secret Submissions Post: here.
Suggestions, comments, and concerns should go here.

[personal profile] herpymcderp 2015-10-29 11:47 pm (UTC)(link)
But.... pedophiles aren't pederasts by definition.

(Anonymous) 2015-10-30 06:12 am (UTC)(link)
Excuse me? Where did you get that idea from? A paedophile is sexually attracted to children, a pederast is into sexual relations between "a man and a boy" (OED), the latter is almost always what would be under legal age of consent in modern terms. Massive overlap.

(Anonymous) 2015-10-30 10:41 am (UTC)(link)
Chiming in to say that the concepts vary depending on whose work you read, but according to most articles a pederast would be a person who sexually abuses minors wihout implying they are exclusively attracted to them (they are just as likely to abuse other vulnerable victims). While a pedophile is exclusively attracted to children and is, in essence, usually much more immature and therefore capable of a complex level of denial -- ex. believing he can have a "relationship" with a child, kids are able to consent, etc.

[personal profile] herpymcderp 2015-10-31 01:10 am (UTC)(link)
Nope. Formal defintions put pederasty as attractions to adolescents/pubescent children and pedophilia as attraction to prepubescent children. There is no overlap.