[ SECRET POST #2253 ]

[case]

⌈ Secret Post #2253 ⌋

Warning: Some secrets are NOT worksafe and may contain SPOILERS.

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Notes:

Secrets Left to Post: 04 pages, 077 secrets from Secret Submission Post #322.
Secrets Not Posted: [ 0 - broken links ], [ 0 - not!secrets ], [ 0 - not!fandom ], [ 1 - too big ], [ 0 - repeat ].
Current Secret Submissions Post: here.
Suggestions, comments, and concerns should go here.

Comments

[(Anonymous)]

but spanish =/= latina.

They may speak a common tongue, but they come from two completely different continents. They are not from the same etnic group.

[(Anonymous)]

You do realize the Spanish colonized a huge part of Latin America, so that yeah they come from the same continent?

[(Anonymous)]

Please let this be a troll.

[(Anonymous)]

No, I'm a South American, actually.

[(Anonymous)]

they only descended partly from European people (or even African and Asian people), the other big part was from the indigenous people who originally lived there

now, which kinds and which degrees of mixing where involved depend on the country and even regions

[(Anonymous)]

But those cultures have nothing to do with the "latin" culture, meaning Spanish culture which finds its roots in Roman culture hence the LATIN part. You can't have a "latin" culture unless it can tie its roots back to the Romans, the original Latins. There were no Romans in Peru during Inca times. They can not claim to be "latin." Otherwise, people are just claiming things that do not belong to them.

[(Anonymous)]

oh, yeah, I'm not arguing that (I've actually always found it a little weird that they use the "latino(a)" like that; I mean, yeah, they are shortening "latinoamerican" which made sense on its own to describe that the influence from Spanish, Portuguese, French (and maybe Italian by extension too?) cultures that colonized there but fuck it I'm not a linguist and trying to think too much about this gives me a headache)

I am a different anon, I should have mentioned that

[(Anonymous)]

If you get rid of the Spanish part then you are eliminating what makes them "latin" in the first place. Otherwise, they are pre-Columbian. Or to put it another way, if they had been settled by Germans, no one would be calling them "latin." So, you must have a Spanish influence in order for them to be "latin."

[(Anonymous)]

There are actually a lot of Germans in Brazil! Oh ho! Oh hee!

(But also, Portugal left its mark on Brazil rather than Spain. So maybe it's all just beside the point. South America, though! Not monolithic!)

[(Anonymous)]

Yeah, and the germans in Brazil were Nazis who fled their due punishment and hid in South America, oh ho, oh hee, it's not funny :|

[(Anonymous)]

Yeah, but...they're not Spanish. As in, they aren't people born and raised in Spain. Just because they have Spanish blood in them from years and years ago doesn't make them SPANISH. White Americans are not European even if their ancestors descended from Europe. They are American.

Modern Spaniards have a completely different culture from modern Latin@s, and they don't particularly look the same on average either. Yes, they both have a "Latin" origin but you're really just getting into linguistics in that and entirely missing the point.