[ SECRET POST #2253 ]

[case]

⌈ Secret Post #2253 ⌋

Warning: Some secrets are NOT worksafe and may contain SPOILERS.

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Notes:

Secrets Left to Post: 04 pages, 077 secrets from Secret Submission Post #322.
Secrets Not Posted: [ 0 - broken links ], [ 0 - not!secrets ], [ 0 - not!fandom ], [ 1 - too big ], [ 0 - repeat ].
Current Secret Submissions Post: here.
Suggestions, comments, and concerns should go here.

Comments

[(Anonymous)]

If you get rid of the Spanish part then you are eliminating what makes them "latin" in the first place. Otherwise, they are pre-Columbian. Or to put it another way, if they had been settled by Germans, no one would be calling them "latin." So, you must have a Spanish influence in order for them to be "latin."

[(Anonymous)]

There are actually a lot of Germans in Brazil! Oh ho! Oh hee!

(But also, Portugal left its mark on Brazil rather than Spain. So maybe it's all just beside the point. South America, though! Not monolithic!)

[(Anonymous)]

Yeah, and the germans in Brazil were Nazis who fled their due punishment and hid in South America, oh ho, oh hee, it's not funny :|

[(Anonymous)]

Yeah, but...they're not Spanish. As in, they aren't people born and raised in Spain. Just because they have Spanish blood in them from years and years ago doesn't make them SPANISH. White Americans are not European even if their ancestors descended from Europe. They are American.

Modern Spaniards have a completely different culture from modern Latin@s, and they don't particularly look the same on average either. Yes, they both have a "Latin" origin but you're really just getting into linguistics in that and entirely missing the point.