case: (Default)
Case ([personal profile] case) wrote in [community profile] fandomsecrets2013-04-23 07:07 pm

[ SECRET POST #2303 ]


⌈ Secret Post #2303 ⌋

Warning: Some secrets are NOT worksafe and may contain SPOILERS.

01.


__________________________________________________



02.


__________________________________________________



03.


__________________________________________________



04.


__________________________________________________



05.


__________________________________________________



06.


__________________________________________________



07.


__________________________________________________



08.


__________________________________________________



09.


__________________________________________________



10.


__________________________________________________



11.


__________________________________________________



12.


__________________________________________________



13.


__________________________________________________



14.


__________________________________________________



15.


__________________________________________________




















Notes:

Secrets Left to Post: 02 pages, 048 secrets from Secret Submission Post #329.
Secrets Not Posted: [ 0 - broken links ], [ 1 2 - not!secrets ], [ 1 - not!fandom ], [ 0 - too big ], [ 0 - repeat ].
Current Secret Submissions Post: here.
Suggestions, comments, and concerns should go here.

N!S 1

(Anonymous) 2013-04-24 01:13 am (UTC)(link)
Yes, and no. Roman's accepted it...if you happened to be the 'dominate' [AKA penetrating] partner - but if you were the receptive/'submissive' partner? Then no. No, they didn't. There is a reason some historians speculate that the reason Caesar became a ladies man was *because* of the way people treated him when it was assumed, or at least joked about, him being the receptive partner in a homosexual relationship.

So, I guess the best way to put it is 'No. The Romans didn't accept it the way you seem to be assuming they did.'